Monday, September 26, 2016


What is the meaning of baptized for the dead?

1 Corinthians 15:29 Otherwise, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized for them?

I am not the first, nor will I be the last to admit I do not know the meaning of 1 Corinthians 15:29, however, I do know what Paul was not trying to communicate. He was not implying that the dead can be baptized, by proxy, using a living person.


Matthew 28:19-20 Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and the Son and the Holy Spirit, 20 teaching them to observe all that I command you...

Jesus told the eleven disciples, to baptize, make disciples, and teach them to obey His commands. The eleven could not make disciples  out of dead men. The disciples could not teach obedience to the dead. Jesus was not saying that the eleven should baptize the dead by proxy.

Romans 6:4 Therefore we have been buried with Him through baptism unto death, so that as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, we too might walk in newness of life.

The living are buried with Christ so they might walk in newness of life. The dead are not doing any walking.

Romans 6:6 knowing this, that our old self was crucified with Him, in order that our body of sin might be done away with , so that we would no longer be slaves to sin;

Dead men do not have to be baptized by proxy, so they will no longer be slaves to sin. When men die their sinning days are over.

Galatians 3:27 For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ.

The apostle Paul was not talking to dead men. Dead men cannot be clothed with Christ.

Colossians 2:12-16 having been buried with Him in baptism...13...He made you alive together with Him, having forgiven us all our transgressions....16 Therefore no one is to act as your judge in regard to food or drink...

It was the living that had their transgressions forgiven by baptism. The apostle Paul was addressing the living, the dead do not eat nor drink.

Mark 16:16 He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved....

If baptizing the dead by proxy was a Scriptural reality; then the living also would have to believe for the dead.

Acts 2:38..."Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holt Spirit.

The living can no more be baptized for the dead; than, can they repent for the dead. Repentance precedes baptism.

If surrogate baptism for the dead is a valid interpretation of 1 Corinthians 15:29, then the living would have to believe for the dead, repent for the dead, confess Jesus as Lord for the dead, receive the Holy Spirit for the dead, and the be faithful until death for the dead.

What does being baptized for the dead imply? I do not know.


1 comment:

  1. If what you say here is true:- '
    'Dead men do not have to be baptized by proxy, so they will no longer be slaves to sin. When men die their sinning days are over.'

    Then why do you think this would be written in 1 Peter ch. 3 vs. 18-20.:-
    'For Christ also suffered for sins once for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body, but made alive in the spirit, IN WHICH HE ALSO WENT AND PREACHED TO THE SPIRITS IN PRISON WHO DISOBEYED LONG AGO WHEN GOD WAITED PATIENTLY IN THE DAYS OF NOAH, while the ark was being built. In the ark a few people, only eight souls, were saved through water.…'

    Why would it be necessary for Jesus to go to speak to the spirits of those who died all that time ago?

    I believe there is are some things that we may not understand but which we just have to accept until the meaning is revealed.


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